If, as 2 Tim 3:16 states, all scripture is inspired, how can the dispensationalist view of scripture, specifically prophacy be held when it states that certain passages only apply when the circumstances of historical events provide the key to unlock the secrets contained therein.

Please state your source that the Old Testament was cannonized prior to writting of the New Testament letters. If you've got something prior to Jamnia, I would be greatly educated!

And please discribe how the 4 gospels we have now were determined upon. Why not the gospel of Philip, Thomas, or even Valentine? How's about the Apocalypse of Peter, or the Acts of Pual. And I'll even throw in the Didache, Letter of Clement of Rome, or the Shepard of Hermes?