this comes from a corrupted view based on an even more corrupt notion of babies being born with sin they have not committed

Babies, those not yet of reason, go to be with the Lord. one can only sin when he knows right from wrong. As Paul said where there is no law there is no sin


You might want to share your views on this:

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"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (KJV)

What do these verses mean to you? Do these verses mean literally that all have sinned? And does this apply to infants, children, "mentally challenged" (we do need to be politically correct), etc? It must, right, since the Bible says what it means and means what it says. All means all, all means everyone. I know this is the case because I have been told it most certainly applies to everyone (Endnote 1). This has been dogmatically stated whenever the issue of the Immaculate Conception arises (Mary could not have been sinless because all have sinned). So this must apply to children as well. Are there any other exceptions to this word all, and if so, who decides? If we make exceptions aren t we really saying Paul was confused or didn t really mean everyone. I remember another place where the word all is used. Let s read Matthew 3 5. "Then Jerusalem was going out to him, and all Judea, and all the district around the Jordan; and they were being baptized by him in the Jordan River, as they confessed their sins." Does this mean that every single person from all these areas personally came out to see John? My this gets confusing, especially when you read Romans 5:19 that says that many, not all, were made sinners.
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and be assured God is all loving and would not send someone to a life without him who has done nothing wrong

I know.

One last thing, when is a person sinning? Dont they need to know it is a sin to be held accountable for that sin? So, if a person thinks killing is acceptable (like an abortion for example), will God hold it against them?